Hayley Williams (Paramore)

Hayley Nichole Williams adalah penyanyi dan penulis lagu Amerika. Dia adalah vokalis dari band rock AmerikaParamore. Hayley Williams lahir 27 Desember 1988 dari pasangan Joey dan Christie Williams, di Meridian, Mississippi. Dia adalah anak tertua dari tiga bersaudara. Pada tahun 2002, setelah perceraian orang tuanya, Williams pindah ke Franklin, Tennessee. Dia bertemu anggota band Josh dan Zac Farro di sekolah barunya. Sementara masih di sekolah dia mencoba untuk membentuk band funk, The Factory, di mana dia bertemu dengan Jeremy Davis .

Williams ditemukan pada tahun 2003 oleh para manajer Dave Steunebrink dan Richard Williams, yang langsung menawarkan menandatangani kontrak untuk dua tahun kesepakatan produksi, saat masih berusia berusia 14 tahun. Pada saat ia menulis lagu pop dengan penulis lagu di Nashville . Williams diperkenalkan ke Atlantic Records A&R Tom Storms, Richard Williams, Jim Zumwalt and Kent Marcus, dan kemudian menandatangani kontrak dengan label oleh Jason Flom. Rencana awal label adalah untuk membuatnya menjadi penyanyi solo pop tetapi Williams menolak ini, dan mengatakan bahwa dia ingin menjadi bagian dari sebuah band dan memainkan pop punk musik.

Atlantic memutuskan untuk mengabulkan keinginan williams, dan ia kemudian membentuk Paramore. Paramore didirikan di Franklin, Tennessee pada tahun 2004 dengan Williams (vokal / keyboard), bersama Josh Farro (lead vocal guitar / backing), Jeremy Davis (bass guitar) dan Zac Farro (drum). Kata Paramore diambil dari nama tengah ibu teman lama mereka. Dalam Bahasa perancis Paramore berarti Secret Lover. Album debut band ini, All We Know Is Falling , dirilis pada tahun 2005 ketika Hayley baru berusia 16 tahun.

Pada tahun 2006, Paramore mulai tur di luar AS untuk pertama kalinya. Pada bulan Juni 2009, band menjadikan Taylor York (gitar) sebagai anggota resmi, meskipun ia sudah bermain sebagai anggota tur dengan band sejak tahun 2007. Pada bulan Desember 2010, dua anggota pendiri Paramore (Josh dan Zac Farro) meninggalkan band. Berita itu diposting oleh Williams di situs web Paramore, Josh kemudian posting di blog tentang kepergiannya, ini menjadi kontroversial saat josh mengkonfirmasikan keberangkatan.

Band ini selesai merekam album studio keempat mereka, self-titled Paramore , pada tanggal 1 November 2012. Band memberitahu penggemar dari situs web mereka bahwa album ini akan dirilis pada bulan April 2013. Pada tanggal 4 Januari 2013, band mengumumkan melalui web bahwa single pertama dari album, “Now”, akan dirilis 22 Januari 2013. Video untuk “Now” dirilis pada 12 Februari 2013. Single kedua “still Into You” dirilis 14 Maret 2013, videonya dirilis pada tanggal 9 April 2013. Williams mengumumkan pada bulan Maret 2013 ia bermitra dengan MAC Cosmetics untuk merilis koleksi make up baru pada tanggal 9 April 2013. Band ini telah merilis empat album studio, All We Know Is Falling , Riot! , Brand New eyes, dan Paramore serta dua album live dan tiga EP.

Williams telah banyak mendapatkan penghargaan diantaranya, pada tahun 2007 pembaca majalah Kerrang! melalui voting menempatkan dia pada posisi kedua setelah vokalis Evanescence’s, Amy Lee, dalam kategori “Sexiest Female”, setelahnya ia memenangkan tempat pertama untuk “Sexiest Female” setahun kemudian tahun 2008, dan sekali lagi pada 2009, 2010, dan 2012 jajak pendapat. Dia juga muncul sebagai karakter yang dapat dimainkan dalam video game Guitar Hero World Tour. Williams menulis dan merekam lagu “Teenagers”, yang ditampilkan dalam soundtrack untuk film Jennifer Body. Pada tahun 2010, ia bernyanyi di lagu “Airplanes” dan “Airplanes (Part II)” dari rapper alternatif BoB’s, BoB Presents: The Adventures of Bobby Ray . Ketika dirilis sebagai single, “Airplanes” memuncaki sepuluh besar di sembilan belas negara, termasuk nomor satu posisi puncak di Inggris dan Selandia Baru.

Williams berkolaborasi denhan produser EDM, Zedd, dalam lagu “Stay The Night” sebagai featured artist. Album ini dirilis pada tanggal 10 September 2013.

Sejak 2008 dia telah menjalin hubungan dengan gitaris New Found Glory, Chad Gilbert .

Birth name	Hayley Nichole Williams
Born	December 27, 1988 (age 25) Meridian, Mississippi, U.S.
Genres	Alternative rock, pop punk
Occupations	Musician, singer-songwriter
Instruments	Vocals, keyboard, acoustic guitar, drums, bass guitar
Years active	2003–present
Labels	Fueled by Ramen, Atlantic, Warner Bros.
Associated acts	Paramore

Apa dampak negatif terlalu sering Onani/Masturbasi?

Onani/masturbasi adalah kegiatan untuk memuaskan syahwat dengan cara mengeluarkan “secara paksa” air mani. Onani/masturbasi bisa dilakukan oleh pria maupun wanita. Secara syar’i Onani/masturbasi termasuk perbuatan yang diharamkan oleh syari’at dan merupakan perbuatan dosa.

Dalam bahasa Indonesia Masturbasi memiliki beberapa istilah yaitu onani atau rancap, yang maksudnya perangsangan organ sendiri dengan cara  menggesek-geseknya melalui tangan atau  benda lain hingga mengeluarkan sperma dan mencapai orgasme. Sedangkan bahasa gaulnya adalah coli atau main sabun yaitu kegiatan yang dilakukan seseorang dalam memenuhi kebutuhan seksualnya, dengan menggunakan tambahan alat bantu sabun atau benda-benda lain, sehingga dengannya dia bisa mengeluarkan mani(ejakulasi).

Tujuan utama dari masturbasi adalah untuk mencari kepuasan atau melepas keinginan nafsu seksual dengan jalan tidak bersenggama. Dalam islam masturbasi dikenal dengan beberapa nama yaitu, al-istimna’ al-istimna’ billkaff, nikah al-yad, jildu umairah, al-i’timar atau‘adatus sirriyah. Masturbasi yang dilakukan oleh wanita, disebut al-ilthaf.

Masturbasi yang terlalu sering bisa memicu aktivitas berlebih pada saraf parasimpatik. Dampaknya adalah produksi hormon-hormon dan senyawa kimia seks meningkat teramasuk asetilkolin, dopamin dan serotonin. Ketidakseimbangan kimiawi yang terjadi akibat hobi masturbasi yang terlalu sering bisa memicu berbagai macam gangguan kesehatan antara lain sebagai berikut: 

1. Kemampuan ereksi melemah dan ImpotensiGangguan pada saraf parasimpatik bisa mempengaruhi kemampuan otak dalam merespons rangsang seksual. Akibatnya kemampuan ereksi melemah, bahkan pada tingkat yang parah bisa menyebabkan impotensi yakni gangguan seksual yang menyebabkan penis tidak bisa berdiri sama sekali.

2. Kebocoran katup air mani
Kemampuan saluran air mani untuk membuka dan menutup pada waktu yag tepat juga terganggu. Akibatnya sperma dan air mani tidak hanya keluar saat ereksi, lendir-lendir tersebut bisa juga keluar sewaktu-waktu seperti ingus sekalipun penis sedang dalam kondisi lemas.

3. Rambut rontok dan KebotakanDampak lain dari ketidakseimbangan hormon yang terjadi jika terlalu sering masturbasi adalah kerontokan rambut. Jika tidak diatasi, lama-kelamaan akan memicu kebotakan atau penipisan rambut pada pria.

Sangatlah jelas bahwa akibat negatif dari melakukan masturbasi dapat menyebabkan tubuh menjadi lemah dan loyo sehingga aktifitas kerja akan terganggu dan menjadi tidak produktif lagi. Setiap kali tubuhnya mengejang karena orgasme, pria akan kehilangan cukup banyak energi karena hampir semua otot akan mengalami kontraksi. Akibatnya jika terlalu sering, pria akan kehilangan gairah untuk beraktivitas dan cenderung akan merasa ngantuk sepanjang hari.

Selain itu kontraksi otot saat mengalami orgasme bisa memicu nyeri otot, terutama di daerah punggung dan selangkangan. Bagi yang melakukannya dengan tangan kosong tanpa pelumas, rasa nyeri juga bisa menyerang penis karena gesekan yang terjadi bisa menyebabkan lecet-lecet.

Apakah efek samping onani memakai sabun?

Beberapa jenis sabun mengandung zat yang bersifat menimbulkan rangsangan pada lapisan dalam kulit dan bersifat terlalu kuat untuk lapisan dalam kulit, sehingga menimbulkan semacam luka lecet, iritasi dan luka pada organ reproduksi anda.

Apa Solusinya?

Apabila kita menyibukkan diri dengan melakukan aktivitas yang seimbang antara fisik, mental dan spiritual saya yakin dorongan seksual akan teralihkan. Hindari melihat atau membaca buku, majalah, atau website yang berisikan konten haram pornografi. Dengan demikian kita tidak akan selalu terangsang, sehingga dapat menahan diri untuk tidak selalu melakukan onani. Perbanyak shaum sunnah sebagai metode yang dicontohkan oleh Rosulullah Shallallaahu ‘alaihi wasallam untuk mengekang syahwat.

Jika anda masih berat meninggalkan kebiasaan onani/masturbasi maka segeralah menikah sebagai solusi terbaik untuk menghilangkan kebiasaan buruk tersebut.

KESIMPULAN

• Onani/masturbasi secara medis berbahaya bagi kesehatan akibat aktifitas yang berlebihan dari syaraf-syaraf tertentu sehingga menimbulkan ketidakseimbangan hormonal.
• Beberapa akibat efek samping onani adalah impotensi/lemah syahwat, kebocoran katup air mani dan rambut rontok/kebotakan. Onani juga menyebabkan tubuh lemah, loyo dan nyeri otot punggung dan selangkangan sehingga produktifitas kerja menjadi berkurang.
• Islam mengajarkan untuk bershaum atau menikah sebagai bentuk solusi agar gejolak syahwat bisa teratasi. 

Penghitungan IP Address

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CCNA Discovery - Chapter 9

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 9 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?

Reboot the web server.
Replace the NIC of the computer.
Ask the user to log off and log on again.
Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

2.   A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes,
the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?

top-down
bottom-up
substitution
trial-and-error
divide-and-conquer

3.   Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?

Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

4.   Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)

having a backup ISR
running network monitoring applications
documenting the troubleshooting process
keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions
keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

5.   Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)

hardware failure
software configuration
devices not able to ping
loose cable connections
device driver configuration

6.   Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?

ipconfig
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /release

7.   What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
ping
tracert

8.   What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
tracert

9.   Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?

top-down
bottom-up
substitution
divide-and-conquer

10.   A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?

Self-diagnostics have not completed.
The power supply is the source of the problem.
The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

11.   A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?

A straight-through cable is being used
The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
A crossover cable is being used.

12.  

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

13.   Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)

SSID
authentication
MD5 checksum
antennae type
encryption key
MAC address filters

14.   A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)

configuring NAT
broadcasting the SSID
using open authentication
enabling MAC address filters
using the default internal IP address
using DHCP to provide IP addresses

15.  

Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?

The host WEP key is incorrect.
The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

16.  

 Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

17.   When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)

physical address
MAC address
default gateway
static IP address
dynamic IP address
DNS server address

18.   What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)

router status page
wireless card settings
router operating system version
local host operating system version
connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

19.   A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)

Ensure the correct cable is used.
Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

20.   Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)

after the network is installed and running optimally
after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
after major changes are implemented on the network
after several computers are added to the network
at the end of the work week

21.   Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)

identifying when the problem occurred
determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
updating network diagrams and documentation
implementing the solution to the problem
running a network baseline test
determining the cost of fixing the problem

22.   How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?

Remote access uses a live chat feature.
Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
FAQs can be consulted more easily.

23.   Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)

final resolution
repetitive measures
number of people involved in the problem
accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps

CCNA Discovery - Chapter 8

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 8 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)

fishing
vishing
phishing
spamming
pretexting
junk mailing

2.   During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?

by e-mail
by phone
in person
through another person

3.   While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?

worm
virus
Trojan horse
denial of service

4.   What is a major characteristic of a Worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5.   A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?

Trojan horse
brute force
ping of death
SYN flooding

6.   What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?

adware
popups
spyware
tracking cookies

7.   What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?

brute force
spam
spyware
tracking cookies

8.   What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?

identification and authentication
remote access
acceptable use
incident handling

9.   Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?

Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
Only hard drives can be protected.
Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

10.   Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)

Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

11.   What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?

server-based
integrated
personal
appliance-based

12.   Which abbreviation refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?

SPI
DMZ
ISR
ISP

13.   Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?

Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

14.   To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?

DMZ
external
internal
a network other than the wired network

15.   What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?

A DMZ is not supported.
The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

16.   What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?

a large corporate environment
a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
a home environment which requires secure VPN access
a small business environment which is experiencing continuing DDoS attacks

17.   What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?

It provides various views of possible attack paths.
It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

18.   Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.

Periodically update anti-virus software.
Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
Periodically update the host operating system.
Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

19.   What best practice relates to wireless access point security?

activation of a popup stopper
a change of the default IP address
an update in the antivirus software definitions
physically securing the cable between the access point and client

20.  

Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?

It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

CCNA Discovery - Chapter 7

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 7 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?

transmits at much lower frequencies
has higher power output
transmits at much higher frequencies
uses better encryption methods

2.   What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)

more secure
longer range
anytime, anywhere connectivity
easy and inexpensive to install
ease of using licensed air space
ease of adding additional devices

3.   What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)

speed
security
mobility
reduced installation time
allows users to share more resources
not susceptible to interference from other devices

4.   A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)

the size of the building
the number of solid interior walls in the building
the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
the encryption method used on the wireless network
the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5.   Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6.   What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?

IEEE has approved the device.
The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7.   Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?

connects two networks with a wireless link
stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
increases the strength of a wireless signal

8.   Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?

cell
antenna
access point
wireless bridge
wireless client

9.   Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?

created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10.  

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?

The router supports encryption and authentication.
The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11.

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?

Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
SSID Broadcast

12.   Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
responsible for determining the signal strength
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13.   Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14.   What type of authentication do most access points use by default?

Open
PSK
WEP
EAP

15.   Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

requires no authentication
uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
requires the use of an authentication server
requires a mutually agreed upon password

16.   What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)

WEP
WPA
EAP
ASCII
pre-shared keys

17.   What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?

Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18.   What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?

address filtering
authentication
broadcasting
encryption
passphrase encoding

19.   What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?

encryption
hacking block
traffic filtering
MAC address filtering
authentication

20.   What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)

8 bit
16 bit
32 bit
64 bit
128 bit

21.   Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.

encrypt; authenticate users on
filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
identify the wireless network; compress data on
create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

CCNA DIscovery - Chapter 6

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 6 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   What type of server would use IMAP?

DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

2.   A network client in a corporate environment reboots. Which type of server would most likely be used first?

DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3.   Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

4.   Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

UDP
FTP
IP
SMTP
TCP

5.   Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Application
Physical
Internet
Network Access
Presentation

6.   You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?

UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

7.   Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?

Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
DNS server

8.   A network administrator needs to allow web pages on the company web server to be accessed securely. What port number is used to request web content to be transmitted using a secure protocol?

53
69
80
443

9.   Which port number is used by SMTP?

20
21
25
26
110

10.   Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP

11.   A computer user encounters an issue when printing a document. Which application could a computer user use to contact technical support to gain an immediate answer to an issue?

blog
e-mail
web mail
instant messaging
virtual reality
virtualization

12.   An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?

The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

13.   What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?

protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
protocol stack
protocol layering

14.   What information is contained in an IP header?

source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

15.   Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?

4
2
1
3

16.   A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?

removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
removes the Ethernet header and trailer

17.   A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?

1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits 

1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application 

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

18.   What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?

It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

19.   What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?

data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

20.   What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer? (Choose three.)

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
error-checking information

CCNA Discovery - Chapter 5

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 5 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   How large are IPv4 addresses?

8 bits
16 bits
32 bits
64 bits
128 bits 

2.

Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?

The router interface does not have a default gateway.
The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3.   Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

first two octets
third and fourth octets
network portion
host portion
only the fourth octet

4.   A host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default mask belongs to what network?

172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0

5.   Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.252

6.   How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?

4
8
16
24

7.   How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

254
255
256
510
511
512

8.   Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?

175.124
35.4
.4
124.35.4
175.124.35

9.   Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.16.4.4
192.168.5.5
224.6.6.6

10.   What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?

a specific host
a group of hosts
the default gateway
the network broadcast address

11.   What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?

the MAC address of the sending host
the MAC address of the destination host
an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12.   Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?

broadcast
simulcast
multicast
unicast

13.   What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?

MAC and IP addresses for the default router
IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

14.   A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?

The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

15.   Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?

ARP
DHCP
DNS
RARP

16.   Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

17.

Refer to the graphic. The host requests an IP configuration from the Linksys integrated router which is configured to provide DHCP services. In addition to the host IP address, which additional IP address is provided that will allow the host to access the ISP and the Internet?

IP address of the destination host
public gateway IP address of the ISP
external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

18.   Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?

ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

19.   What is one of the benefits of using NAT?

filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

20.   Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)

Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

21.   

Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?

10.0.0.17
128.107.1.2
192.135.250.0
209.165.201.1

CCNA Discovery - Chapter 4

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 4 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Which definition describes the term Internet?

a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
a network of networks that connects countries around the world
a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2.   What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

between a client and a host
between two local networks
between a computer and a switch
between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3.   What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?

Internet LAN
ISP backbone
Internet gateways
Internet providers
Internet backbone

4.   Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?

hub
bridge
modem
repeater
ISR

5.   What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)

fast connections
extra web space
free Windows upgrade
cheapest cost available to all users
additional e-mail accounts
replacement hardware at no cost

6.   What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?

Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7.   Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)

an IP address
file sharing enabled
a network connection
server services enabled
access to an Internet service provider
an address obtained directly from the RIR

8.   What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?

NOC
ISP
hop
segment

9.   What does the tracert command test?

NIC functionality
the ISP bandwidth
the network path to a destination
the destination application functionality

10.   What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?

analog technology
cable modem technology
digital subscriber line technology
wireless technology

11.   Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?

to connect end users using cable technology
to connect end users using analog technology
to connect end users using wireless technology
to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12.   

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber

13.   

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber

14.   Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

between buildings
in a home office network
where EMI is an issue
in a cable TV network
inside a school building
in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15.   What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?

data security
no loss of signal
no electromagnetic interference
reliable data communications

16.   

Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

crossover
eight coax channels
multimode fiber
single-mode fiber
straight-through

17.   What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?

ST
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45

18.   Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)

uses RJ-11 jacks
uses RJ-45 jacks
supports only data transmissions
allows quick rearrangements of network connections
forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19.   What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)

requires no preplanning
aids in isolation of cabling problems
protects cables from physical damage
provides compliance with future standards
provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20.   What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

installing cables in conduit
having improper termination
losing light over long distances
installing low quality cable shielding
using low quality cables or connectors

21.   What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

pinouts
cable lengths
connector color
connector types
cost per meter (foot)
tensile strength of plastic insulator

CCNA Discovery - Chapter 3

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 3 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?

flow control
encapsulation
encoding
multicasting
access method

2.

Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3.   Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)

adds complexity to networks
encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
provides consistent interconnections across networks
ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
simplifies new product development

4.   What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?

type of cable used
type of data transmission
speed of transmission
type of connector required
maximum length of cable allowed

5.   Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
source Ethernet address

6.   Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

logical addresses only
IP addresses only
MAC addresses only
broadcast addresses only

7.   What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

detects transmission errors
provides timing for transmission
contains the start of frame delimiter
indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8.   What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9.   Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?

modem
switch
router
hub

10.   Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)

router
hub
switch
server
computer

11.   Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?

ARP
DHCP
DNS
WINS

12.   A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

It drops the frame.
It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
It returns the frame to the sender.

13.   What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

prevents collisions on a local network
keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
controls which hosts have access to the network
controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14.

Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

It sends the data packet as it was received.
It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15.   Which table does a router use to make decisions about the interface through which a data packet is to be sent?

ARP table
routing table
network table
forwarding table

16.   If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

17.   What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

a server hosted by the ISP
the router interface closest to the computer
a server managed by a central IT department
the switch interface that connects to the computer

18.   What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

dynamic route
default route
destination route
generic route

19.   Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)

naming scheme
IP addressing scheme
length of cable runs
physical location of networking devices
specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20.   An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)

NIC
switch
e-mail server
application server
wireless access point

21.   What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
It enables the user to share printers.
It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.